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Answer: C

29. What is a key benefit of using the Cisco Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC)?
A. Provides performance metrics for QoS configurations.
B. Eliminates the need for map classes to perform traffic classification.
C. Allows users to specify traffic classes independently from QoS polices.
D. Allows QoS policy information to be automatically distributed throughout the network.
E. Provides an integrated testing mechanism for traffic classification and QoS policy configurations.

Answer: C

30. What is the effect of enabling Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on low-speed router interface?
A. Delay is guaranteed for high-priority traffic types.
B. Bandwidth is guaranteed for different traffic queues.
C. Fixed-size queues are pre-allocated for different traffic flows.
D. Low-bandwidth traffic receives priority over high-bandwidth traffic.

Answer: D

31. What is the function of Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC) classification?
A. to identify traffic independently of QoS polices
B. to mark traffic based on the Class Latency index (CLI)
C. to route traffic based on the multiple QoS policies
D. to group QoS configuration commands into modules to ease configuration
E. To aggregate traffic onto one QoS classification for operational efficiency (CPU and Memory)

Answer: A

32. On a Cisco switch, CDP v2 must be enabled for which AutoQoS configuration to function properly?
A. WTT queuing
B. trust boundary
C. fr-atm
D. ciscosoflphone

Answer: B

33. What three actions can reduce packet sizes on WAN links supporting converged VoIP and data? (Choose three)
A. Configure LFI to an average packet size for all traffic on the WAN link
B. Configure compressed RTP headers
C. Configure software payload compression
D. Configure hardware payload compression
E. Configure LFI to the same size as the voice packets.

Answer: BCE

34. What will happen when class-based header compression is configured without specifying RTP or TCP?
A. Only TCP headers will be compressed
B. Only RTP headers will be compressed
C. The unrecognized command warning is returned.
D. RTP and TCP headers will be compressed

Answer: D

35. What are the benefits, as listed in the DQOS course, for Enterprise Networks when QoS is implemented? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It sets traffic priorities across the network.
B. It allows better LAN performance through Per QOS Spanning Tree (PQST).
C. It minimizes loss during bursty congestion.
D. It allows for the disconnection of calls.
E. It reduces the amount of data sent through the network using Content Distribution Networking (CDN).

Answer: AC

36. In which way does the Integrated Services model differ from the Differentiated Services model?
A. Integrated Services is more scalable than Differentiated Services.
B. Integrated Services provides traffic preferences, but no guaranteed delivery.
C. Integrated Services uses RSVP to signal the requested level of service, whereas Differentiated Services does not use any signaling.
D. Integrated Services does not make use of any signals whereas Differentiated Services uses signals to request level of services.
E. Integrated Services uses IP Precedence whereas Differentiated Services uses the DSCP.

Answer: C

37. You are the network administrator at PassGuide . The newly appointed PassGuide trainee wants to know what are the best practices when designing a network for QoS. What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. To color close to the application
B. To perform marking at WAN edge routers prior to packets exiting a WAN port.
C. To create a trust boundary as close as possible to the network edge.
D. To reclassify QoS settings near to the edge when devices seem dodgy and untrustworthy.
E. All of the above.

Answer: ACD

38. A CE to PE Frame Relay link is supporting VoIP and data traffic. When managed CE services are being used, which QoS mechanisms should typically be configured? (Choose four)
A. Frame Relay Traffic Shping (FRTS) on both the CE and PE
B. FRF 12 on both the CE and PE
C. WRED for all traffic classes on both the CE and PW
D. LLW on the CE and PE
E. class-based policing on the CE ingress for traffic to the customer
F. class-based policing ono the PE ingress for traffic to the customer

Answer: ABEF

39. How does CB-Shaping adapt the shaping rate when BECNs are received?
A. The shape-adaptive min-rate command adapts the shaping rate when FECN bits are received
B. Each BECN bit causes the shaping rate to be reduced by three-quarters of the previous rate, but not below the min-rate
C. When FECN bits are received, it causes the transmit shaping rate to be reduced by one-half, but not below the min-rate
D. The shaping rate will increase slowly once there have been 16 intervals of no FECNs.

Answer: B

40. Which term describes the amount of time it takes to place all of the bits in a packet onto a wire?
A. queuing delay
B. processing delay
C. propagation delay
D. serialization delay
E. prioritization delay
F. optimization delay

Answer: D

41. How is AutoQoS related to MQC?
A. AutoQoS implements classes and policies defined earlier in MQC
B. duplicates policies defined in MQC from one device to another
C. generates MQC classes and policy map templates
D. runs an interactive script to guide the administrator through MQC

Answer: C

42. The newly appointed PassGuide trainee technician wants to know what steps are used to implement QoS using Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC). What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Select an output queuing strategy using a queue map.
B. Attach the QoS traffic policy to an interface in the inbound or outbound direction.
C. Configure marking options using a route map.
D. Configure classification options using a class map.
E. Configure a QoS traffic policy by associating a QoS traffic class with a QoS feature.

Answer: BDE

43. What happens to traffic that does not have a match when using a Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC)?
A. It is ignored by the MQC
B. It is dropped (implicit deny all)
C. It is placed in the default class
D. It is process switched through the router

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code: 642-642
Exam Name: Quality of Service (QoS)
For candidates making preparation for the Cisco 642-642 exam, what they most desire is to easily pass the 642-642 (Quality of Service (QoS)) exam. PassGuide 642-642 includes 180 questions and answers, which are collected and collated by experts of Cisco. With our 642-642 study materials, you can successfully take Cisco certification of 642-642 exam and go further on Cisco career path.

Quality of Service (QOS)

Q&A V3.20

www.PassGuide.com

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1. Which of the following markers can be set by Committed Access Rate (CAR)? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DSCP bits
B. QoS Group
C. ATM CLP bit
D. Frame Relay DE bit
E. IP precedence bits

Answer: ABE

2. What makes the DiffServ model more scalable than the IntServ model? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DiffServ makes use of per-aggregate QoS instead of per-flow QoS.
B. DiffServ makes use of hop-by-hop signaling which allows DiffServ to scale to a larger number of application flows.
C. DiffServ is capable of implementing admission control either locally on the routers or be offloaded to a central policy server using the COPS protocol.
D. DiffServ routers are not compelled to track the state information for each individual flow.

Answer: AD

3. The newly appointed PassGuide trainee technician wants to know what the benefits of using traffic shaping to implement network rate limiting is.What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Traffic shaping is an effective tool for rate-limiting VoIP traffic.
B. It will not increase packet loss.
C. It will not add to packet transit delays.
D. Traffic shaping can interact with congestion mechanisms embedded in Frame Relay.
E. Traffic shaping can be used on inbound and outbound traffic on a router.

Answer: BD

4. Study the Exhibit below carefully: Router# show interfaces hssi 0/0/0 rate-limit Hssi0/0/0 45Mbps to R1 Input matches: all traffic params: 20000000 bps, 24000 limit, 24000 extended limit conformed 8 packets, 428 bytes; action: transmit exceed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action: drop last packet: 8680ms ago, current burst: 0 bytes last cleared 00:03:59 ago, conformed 0 bps, exceed 0 bps Output matches: all traffic params: 20000000 bps, 24000 limit, 24000 extended limit conformed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action: transmit exceed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action; drop last packet: 8680ms ago, current burst: 0 bytes last cleared 00:03:59 ago, conformed 0 bps, exceed 0 bps According to the exhibit, the router has been configured with Committed Access Rate (CAR) to rate limit traffic. What data rate has the traffic been limited to?
A. 192 Kbps
B. 2400 Kbps
C. 4,5 Mbps
D. 20 Mbps
E. 40 Mbps

Answer: D

5. The newly appointed PassGuide trainee technician wants to know which type of software queuing mechanism is Frame Relay Traffic Shaping implemented with on the physical interface. What will your reply be?
A. Priority Queuing (PQ)
B. Custom Queuing (CQ)
C. FIFO
D. Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
E. IP Real Time Transport Protocol (RTP) Priority

Answer: D

6. Why is it beneficial to make use of Enhanced LMI (ELMI) on Cisco networks?
A. ELMI is responsible for providing virtual provisioning tools at the edge of the Frame Relay network.
B. ELMI permits routers to dynamically download QoS information from Cisco switches for use in traffic shaping or for congestion management purposes.
C. ELMI provides the router the ability to use additional QoS tools including rate limiting with CAR and the Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC).
D. ELMI allows the router to deliver packets at the line rate of the Frame Relay interface, regardless of the condition of the Frame Relay network.

Answer: B

7. Which of the following statements are true when you compare DSCP and IP Precedence to each other? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DSCP is backwards compatible with IP Precedence.
B. DSCP cannot be easily mapped into QoS because of its expanded classification options.
C. DSCP is more granular the IP Precedence, since more marking combinations are available.
D. DSCP appears stubby when compared IP Precedence, since devices make use of DSCP as defined in RFC exclusively.
E. DSCP is 6 bits long and IP Precedence is 3 bits long.
F. DSCP is more restrictive than IP Precedence, since devices are only allowed to use DSCP as defined in RFCs.

Answer: ACE

8. Which MQC command would you use to perform marking properly?
A. precedence 5
B. ip precedence 5
C. set ip precedence 5
D. set ip mark precedence 5
E. mark ip precedence 5

Answer: C

9. Which of the following statements aptly describes a network well designed for QoS?
A. Packets are classified at each router, based on as many detail as possible, typically using extended IP ACLs to match the packets for classification.
B. Packets are classified at each router, based on socket address only, typically using extended IP ACLs to match the packets for classification.
C. Packets are classified and marked, close to the edge of the network. The packets are treated differently based on this marking at the routers in the middle of the network.
D. Packets are classified based on different parameters, but close to the edge of the network. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers.
E. Packets are classified based on socket address, at the router closest to the source of the traffic. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers.

Answer: C

10. The newly appointed PassGuide trainee technician wants to know which bit in the ATM header can be marked by the Class Based Marker to extend IP QoS policy into an ATM network. What will your reply be?
A. DE
B. PTI
C. FECN
D. CLP
E. BECN

Answer: D

11. How many possible meaningful values are defined in the DSCP in a Differentiated Services environment?
A. 3
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. 64
F. 128

Answer: E

12. Which of the following features will allow the marking of packets according to the Cisco QoS Framework? (Choose all that apply.)
A. MQC
B. CQ
C. PQ
D. CAR
E. WRED

Answer: AD

13. Which of the following can be classified as Call Admission Control methods? (Choose all that apply.)
A. GTS
B. Advanced Busyout Monitor
C. RSVP
D. NBAR
E. Max Connections
F. AVBO.

Answer: CEF

14. What are the benefits, as listed in the DQOS course, for Enterprise Networks when QoS is implemented? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It decreases propagation delay.
B. It provides predictable response times.
C. It prevents the need to increase bandwidth.
D. It supports dedicated bandwidth per application.
E. It maximizes loss during bursty congestion.

Answer: BD

15. Which of the following is most likely to occur for voice in the absence of QoS? (Choose all that apply.)
A. choppy speech
B. words out of order due to recovery
C. disconnect calls
D. unsynchronized voice patterns
E. softer volume speech

Answer: AC

16. Auto QoS is which type of Cisco IOS command?
A. interface
B. global
C. policy-map
D. service-map
E. serial interface only

Answer: A

17. Which two components are associated with the DiffServ model? (Choose two.)
A. hop-by-hop signaling
B. per-hop behavior
C. RSVP
D. Hard QoS
E. DSCP use of class selector

Answer: BE

18. What is true about a DSCP marked packet when it reaches an IP precedence based device?
A. The eight DSCP bits are all set to zero.
B. The last three bits of the DSCP are set to 101.
C. The 8 DSCP AF classes will be mapped into the 8 levels of IP precedence.
D. Bits 7-5 of DSCP have the same position and meaning as IP precedence.

Answer: D

19. SIMULATION Simulation Exhibit:

You are working as a network administrator at PassGuide.com. You are required to configure the PassGuide 1 WAN edge router: you must configure the appropriate MQC based queuing mechanism for the outbound traffic to the WAN (S0/0) so that the following bandwidth requirements will be met. A strict priority queue with a 168 Kbps bandwidth guarantee for the class voice is reserved, a minimum bandwidth guarantee of 30 Kbps is configured for the class interactive, a minimum bandwidth guarantee of 16 Kbps for class bulk, and the default class is configured for WFQ with no bandwidth guarantee. In addition, also limit the bulk traffic class to an average rate of 24 Kbps by buffering excess traffic (use the IOS default Bc and Be). In addition, also limit the bulk traffic class to an average rate of 24 Kbps by buffering excess traffic (use the IOS default Bc and Be).
Use a policy-map called “IIq-policy” and reference the existing class-maps already configured on the PassGuide 1 router. Traffic Class Name Bandwidth Guarantee voice 168 Kbps maximum (use the IOS default burst value) interactive 30 Kbps minimum bulk 16 Kbps minimum (For the bulk traffic class, also limit the traffic to an average rate of 24 Kbps by buffering excess traffic (use the IOS default Bc and Be)) class-default Weighted Fair Queue with no bandwidth guarantee

Simulation Output exhibit #2.

Answer:

PassGuide 1(config)#policy-map llq-policy
PassGuide 1(config-pmap)#class voice
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#priority 168
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#class interactive
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#bandwidth 30
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#class bulk
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#bandwidth 16
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#shape average 2400
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#class class-default
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#fair-queue
PassGuide 1(config-pmap-c)#interface serial 0/0
PassGuide 1(config-if)#service-policy output llq-policy
PassGuide 1(config-if)#end
PassGuide 1#copy running-config startup-config

20. Command exhibit: mis qos trust pass-through dscp Your apprentice PassGuide is configuring a Catalyst 2950 Switch. What is the purpose of the command she is submitting (see exhibit)?
A. The command configures a port to trust the incoming CoS and not modify the incoming DSCP when sending the frame out.
B. The command configures a port to trust the incoming CoS and to generate the internal DSCP based on the incoming CoS. The internalr DSCP will then determine the gress DSCP.
C. The command configures a port to trust the incoming CoS and DSCP values.
D. The command configures a port to trust the incoming CoS and to generate the internal DSCP based on the incoming DSCP. The internal DSCP will then determine the egress DSCP.
E. The command configures a port to trust the incoming CoS and bypass the CoS-to-DSCP maps for generating the internal DSCP.
F. The command configures a port to trust the incoming CoS and bypass the DSCP-to-CoS maps for generating the egress CoS.

Answer: A

21. Which of the following tasks are necessary when configuring Service Assurance Agent (SAA agent)? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You must schedule the operation
B. You must configure the data collection frequency
C. You must configure the operation type
D. You must configure a collection probe on the router
E. You must configure timer parameters for the SAA agent

Answer: AC

22. The SSA agent is used to measure which of the following SLA metrics? (Choose all that apply.)
A. jitter
B. interface utilization
C. packet loss
D. response time
E. client response
F. router buffer allocation

Answer: ACD

23. Which of the following is part of SMS? (Choose all that apply.)
A. QDM
B. CiscoWorks2000 Resource Manager Essentials
C. RSVP COPS Server
D. Service Level Manager
E. CiscoViewCiscoWorks 2000 Management Server
F. All of the above

Answer: BDE

24. You are using IP to ATM CoS. Which action can be configured to be automatically taken should a VC in a VC bundle fail?
A. The VC can be remapped to a different bundle.
B. The VC can be declared down and an alternate route requested.
C. The circuit data can be transferred or “bumped” to a lower priority VC.
D. The circuit data can be divided equally between the remaining VCs in the bundle.

Answer: C

25. How is IP to ATM CoS supported in a single VC?
A. The IP Precedence bits are mapped into the unused upper bits of the VPI field.
They are treated accordingly as they are switched through the ATM network.
B. The router at the edge of the ATM network sets the ATM CLP based on the IP Precedence bits.
Lower priority packets are transported in lower priority cells.
They are treated accordingly as they are switched through the ATM network.
C. WRED/DWRED is used in the routers at the edge of the ATM network.
Based on the IP Precedence bits, IP traffic is subjected to different drop probabilities (and therefore priorities) as IP traffic coming into a router competes for bandwidth on the ATM VC.
D. PQ-WFQ is used in the routers at the edge of the ATM network.
Based on the IP Precedence bits, IP traffic is then properly queued and de-queued as IP traffic competes for bandwidth on the ATM VC.

Answer: C

26. You are the network administrator at PassGuide . The newly appointed PassGuide trainee wants to know which LFI mechanism has an option for fragmentation by the Frame Relay DTE, with the switch reassembling the fragments. What will your reply be?
A. FRF .3
B. FRF .9
C. FRF .11 Annex C
D. FRF.12
E. FRF.6

Answer: D

27. Which of the following statements are valid when considering the need for link efficiency tools such as fragmentation and compression? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Fragmentation allows voice CAC mechanism to increase call volume.
B. While adding bandwidth to counter congestion, reducing load on a link by compression increases available bandwidth.
C. Variable sized packets create extra processing overhead for most IOS queuing mechanism, but fragmentation creates uniformity, thus decreasing queuing delay.
D. Based on link speed, some single packets are large enough that their serialization delay causes intolerable delay for voice or video.
E. All of the above.

Answer: BD

Answer: ABD

172. The CIO of PassGuide wants to know what allows the Differential Services model to be scaled to large networking environments. What will your reply be?
A. Differential services are accomplished through hop-by-hop application signaling.
B. The Differentiated Services model scales by providing per-flow state visibility to the core of the network.
C. Policing is not utilized in the Differentiated Services model providing to facilitate efficient expediting of high priority traffic flows.
D. It achieves scalability by implementing complex classification and conditioning requirements only at network boundary nodes.
E. In the Differentiated Services model, an explicit setup mechanism predefines all QoS parameters for the packet before it is transmitted.

Answer: D

173. At the network layer, IP packets are typically classified based on which three items? (Choose three.)
A. packet length
B. VLAN Identifier
C. flow control bits
D. source and destination IP addresses
E. content of the ToS byte

Answer: ADE

174. Which of the following are types of scheduling used by Cisco QoS features? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Round robin
B. Modified linear
C. Strict priority
D. Fair weighted
E. Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED)

Answer: ACD

175. What is the default number of classes that Assured Forwarding (AF) have?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8

Answer: C

176. Exhibit:

Central site router A has a single access link, which is a 512 Kbps link, with PVCs of CIR 256 K to each of three remote routers, namely routerB, routerC, and routerD. RouterB’s output utilization on the PVC to routerA never exceeds an average of 100 Kbps. You have verified that it never even approaches 256 Kbps, even during short burts. Which two statements are true about fragmentation? (Choose two)
A. Since there is never congestion, there is no need for fragmentation.
B. The Frame Relay network inherently deals with congestion therefore no fragmentation is required,
C. There still may be large packets leaving routerB, so fragmentation may be beneficial to overcome serialization delay.
D. Congestion delay called “Egress Blocking” could occur for frames leaving the Frame Relay network, heading for routerA, so fragmentation at all the remote routers might help some frames to be interspersed.

Answer: CD

177. For very low-speed links (those with a link speed less than 768 K), it is necessary to use techniques that provide link fragmentation and interleaving of packets. This prevents voice traffic from being delayed behind large data frames and hence bounds jitter. What are two techniques that exist for this?
A. LECS for ATM links.
B. Multilink PPP (MLP) for Serial links.
C. FRF.12 for Frame Relay.
D. 1png for DSL links.

Answer: BC

178. Exhibit:

PC1 sends a packet to R1. R1 forwards to R2, then R3, and finally R3 forwards the packet to the destination, PC2. R1 marks the packet with IP Precedence 3. Which statement is true?
A. When classifying packets at Layer 3, only Layer 3 IP Precedence marking can be used.
B. R2 and R3 can perform QoS features that ignore the marked IP Precedence field in the packet.
C. R2 and R3 can only perform QoS features based on the IP Precedence field, since the packet had already been marked.
D. R2 can apply QoS features to the packet, and R3 can on ingress, but R3 cannot apply QoS features to the packet as it exists the Ethernet port on which PC2 resides.

Answer: B

179. From the list below, what is the most important piece to implement if you are considering a VoIP infrastructure?
A. Reinstallation of the PBX.
B. QoS
C. PSTN Regeneration costs.
D. POTS installation documentation.
E. A new Help Desk trained on Voice technologies.

Answer: B

180. Which tool from the list below can be applied to the Campus Switches to help eliminate traffic congestion?
A. QoS
B. LMI
C. PIM
D. DVRMP
E. CDP
F. RDP

Answer: A

181. Command exhibit: qos pre-classify Your PassGuide .com trainee Sandra asks you what the purpose of the command displayed in the exhibit is.
A. To enable the IOS to copy the ToS field from the original IP header to the outer tunnel IP header.
B. To enable the IOS to copy the ToS field from the outer tunnel IP header to the outer tunnel IP header.
C. To enable the IOS to classify the packet based on the original IP header instead of the tunnel IP header.
D. To enable the IOS to classify the packet based on the outer tunnel IP header instead of the original IP header.
E. to enable class-based marking on tunnel interface
F. to enable class-based marking on IPSec crypto maps

Answer: C

A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
D. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.

Answer: BF

38. If your IP telephony administrator asks you to configure a local zone for your dial plan to control the volume of calls between two end points in a distributed multisite environment, which type of Call Admission Control will you be implementing?
A. locations based
B. automated alternate routing
C. gatekeeper based
D. SRST

Answer: C

39. If your IP telephony administrator asks you to configure a local zone for your dial plan to control the volume of calls between two end points in a centralized multisite environment, which two types of Call Admission Control can be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. locations based
B. automated alternate routing
C. gatekeeper based
D. SRST
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager based

Answer: AC

40. Refer to the exhibit. Based on just the information in this configuration, what can be determined from the dial plan?

A. The Boston office uses 10-digit local dialing.
B. The Carmichael office uses 6-digit extensions.
C. The Boston office uses a 10-digit route pattern.
D. The Carmichael office uses 10-digit local dialing.
E. The Carmichael office can make local calls in Boston.

Answer: D

41. Refer to the exhibit. On an H.323 gateway, the calls from the IP network to the PSTN are working but the inbound calls are not. Which command will you use to correct this issue?

A. destination-pattern
B. session target
C. bind srcaddr
D. session preference
E. session gateway
F. session connect

Answer: C

42. Your customer has determined that they would like to implement TEHO in their dial plan. Which table would contain the most vital information for this strategy?
A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

43. The following exhibit shows configs for H.323 gateway. You have been asked to implement TEHO from a remote branch office with area code 301 to the HQ office with area code 201 using Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The remote office has an MGCP gateway and the HQ office has an H.323 gateway. Once the call arrives at the HQ, it should break out to the PSTN as a seven-digit local call. Which statement about the route pattern is true?

A. route pattern should be 91201.[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot and Prefix 9
B. route pattern should be 91201.[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot
C. route pattern should be 91201.[2-9]XXXXXX
D. route pattern should be 9.1201[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot
E. route pattern should be 9.1201[2-9]XXXXXX with Discard Digit as Predot and Prefix 9

Answer: A

44. You’ve been asked to implement PSTN backup for an existing TEHO setup that is using Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which configuration method is correct?
A. Configure locations based CAC with PSTN backup. If calls over the WAN fail, PSTN backup will be triggered.
B. Add a second gateway that is used locally. Create a second route pattern that points to the gateway with preference of 2.
C. Create a second route list that points to a local gateway. Assign the route list to the existing route pattern with preference of 2.
D. Create one route pattern with the first gateway used for VoIP and the second gateway used for a local PSTN backup.
E. Create a second route group which uses the local gateway. Add this route group to the route list that is used in the existing route pattern.

Answer: E

45. Which three statements are true in order for inbound PSTN calls to work in an H.323 gateway configured with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.)
A. The H.323 gateway should be registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The command h323-gateway voip tech-prefix should be configured on the H.323 interface.
C. The command h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr should be configured on the H.323 interface.
D. A VoIP dial peer pointing to Cisco Unified Communications Manager should be configured.
E. The command h323-gateway voip id should be configured under the H.323 interface.
F. A pots dial peer with direct-inward-dial and incoming-called number should be configured.

Answer: CDF

46. Refer to the exhibit. IT shows an H.323 gateway configuration in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment. An inbound PSTN call to this H.323 gateway fails to connect to IP phone extension 2001. The PSTN user hears a reorder tone. Debug isdn q931 on the H.323 gateway shows the correct called-party number as 5015552001. Which two configuration changes can correct this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Add port 1/0:23 to dial-peer voice 123 pots.
B. Ensure that the Significant Digits for inbound calls on the H.323 gateway configuration is 4.
C. Add a voice translation profile to truncate the number from 10 digits to 4 digits. Apply the voice translation profile to the Voice-port. The configuration field “Significant Digits for inbound calls” is left at default ( All ).
D. Add the command h323-gateway voip id on interface vlan120.
E. Change the destination-pattern on the dial-peer voice 23000 VoIP to 501501…, and change the Significant Digits for inbound calls to 4.

Answer: CE

47. You are implementing an Intercluster Trunk to a remote cluster for a distributed Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology with PSTN backup. Users should always dial four-digit extensions to reach the remote cluster with extensions 4XXX. If the Intercluster Trunk is down, the call should be routed to the PSTN as 5015014XXX through a local MGCP gateway. Assume 9 is used as access code and 1 for long distance calls. Which configuration is correct?
A. Configure a route list with two route groups. Point the first route group to the trunk. Point the second route group to the MGCP gateway and prefix the number with 1501501. Assign the route list to a route pattern of 4XXX.
B. Configure a route pattern with 4XXX. Point the route pattern to the trunk as first choice. The second choice would be an MGCP gateway with prefix 1501501.
C. Configure a route list with two route groups. Point the first route group to the trunk. Point the second route to the MGCP gateway and prefix the number with 91501501. Assign the route list to a route pattern of 4XXX.
D. Configure a route pattern with 4XXX. Point the route pattern to the trunk as first choice. The second choice would be an MGCP gateway with prefix 91501501.
E. Configure two route patterns. Use 4XXX for the first route pattern and point it to the trunk. Use 15015014XXX for the second route pattern and point it to the MGCP gateway.
F. Configure two route patterns. Use 4XXX for the first route pattern and point it to the trunk. Use 915015014XXX for the second route pattern and point it to the MGCP gateway.

Answer: C

49. What are two requirements for configuring an Intercluster Trunk (gatekeeper-controlled) in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. The assigned name must be unique within the cluster.
B. The Intercluster Trunk must have the same name in both clusters.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the assigned device pool will determine which Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems register with the gatekeeper.
D. The IP addresses of Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems in the remote cluster must be specified.
E. The gatekeeper must be defined in Cisco Unified Communications Manager before the intercluster trunk is added.
F. RSVP must be enabled to provide CAC between clusters.

Answer: CE

50. You have five clusters with three Cisco Unified Communications Manager systems in each. How many Intercluster Trunks must be configured to provide full server redundancy if a gatekeeper is present in the network?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6

Answer: E

51. Which two configurations provide the best SIP trunk redundancy with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all SIP trunks with DNS SRV.
B. Configure all SIP trunks with Cisco Unified Border Element.
C. Configure all SIP trunks to point to a SIP gateway.
D. Configure SIP trunks to be members of route groups and route lists.
E. Configure all SIP trunks to allow TCP ports 5060.
F. Configure all SIP trunks to point to a gatekeeper through SIP to H.323 gateway.

Answer: AD

52. Which two methods can be used to challenge the identity of an IP phone from a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. PKI
B. TLS
C. SRTP
D. digest authentication
E. HTTPS
F. SFTP

Answer: BD

53. Which two statements about phone hardening are accurate? (Choose two.)
A. GARPs can be allowed in order to monitor phone access more closely.
B. By default, Cisco Unified Communications Manager disables the PC port on all Cisco IP phones that have a PC port. It is possible to enable the PC Port setting in the Phone Configuration window of Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration.
C. Disabling settings access automatically sets the current Contrast, Ring Type, Network Configuration, Model Information, Status, and Volume settings to the default for that phone.
D. Disabling PC voice VLAN access will cause packets received from the PC port that uses the voice VLAN tag to drop.
E. Disabling settings access prohibits access to all the options that are normally displayed when the Settings button on the phone is pressed.

Answer: DE

54. Which debug command can be used to troubleshoot an issue with a Tcl script?
A. debug tcl script
B. debug call script
C. debug custom script
D. debug voice application

Answer: D

55. Which encryption algorithm does SRTP utilize?
A. SEAL
B. 3DES
C. IPSEC
D. AES

Answer: D

56. What is required to effectively use the Cisco CTL client to activate security in an IP telephony network?
A. H.323 gateway
B. Security Tokens
C. IPSEC
D. Secure SRST

Answer: B

57. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC uses 4-digit extensions. To call between sites, they dial the intersite access code ‘8′ followed by the 3-digit site code and 4-digit extension of the phone they are trying to reach. Phone_A is in partition Branch1 with a CSS named BR1_External. If a user dials 85014532 from Phone_A, which element of the route plan will be matched?

A. Route Pattern 8501! in the partition Gateway
B. Route Pattern 8501.XXXX# in the partition Gateway
C. Route Pattern 8501.XXXX in the partition Gateway
D. the phone with extension 4532 in partition Branch1
E. the phone with extension 4532 among the partition HQ_Phones
F. Translation Pattern 85XX in the partition Intersite

Answer: F

58. Which two qualities of PKI key exchange overcome asymmetric cryptography scalability issues? (Choose two.)
A. The trusted introducer uses the signed certificates of the endpoints that need to communicate.
B. PKI uses only a single trusted introducer.
C. The trusted introducer uses the private key of each enrolling user and the public key of the introducer as the signed certificate.
D. Only the public key of the introducer has to be initially known and verified by all other entities.
E. The introducer digitally signs the public key of the user with the public key of the introducer to generate a signed certificate.

Answer: BD

59. As the Administrator for an IT company that’s using a Centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology, you’ve been tasked to implement Device Mobility feature for users that roam between their home country (US) and Europe. Due to frequent travels to different countries, your goal is to implement Device Mobility without requiring users to learn each country’s numbering plan. Which scenario will accomplish your goal?
A. Place each roaming user in a country specific User Device Profile.
B. Place each site in a different Device Mobility Group.
C. Place each site and user in the appropriate Device Calling Search Space so they always use the local PSTN gateway for each country.
D. Place each site in a different device pool but use the same Device Mobility Group.
E. Implement Mobile Connect.

Answer: B

Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)

Product Description

Exam Number/Code: 642-456
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)
For candidates making preparation for the Cisco 642-456 exam, what they most desire is to easily pass the 642-456 (Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)) exam. PassGuide 642-456 includes 101 questions and answers, which are collected and collated by experts of Cisco. With our 642-456 study materials, you can successfully take Cisco certification of 642-456 exam and go further on Cisco career path.

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1. The Acme Corporation is experiencing poor, choppy audio quality on voice calls placed across their WAN link to and from Madison. What can be done to the Location parameter for Madison to help alleviate this problem?
A. Increase the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
B. Nothing, the audio bandwidth Location parameter for Madison is not related to the problem.
C. Remove the audio bandwidth parameter in the Location configuration window for Madison.
D. Decrease the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.

Answer: D

2. How are Cisco Unified CallManager location parameters used?
A. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network.
B. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment.
C. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable.
D. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls.

Answer: B

3. What is the impact of setting an RSVP policy per location pair with a default interlocation RSVP service policy?
A. additional bandwidth capacity will be added to the default interlocation RSVP service policy
B. the RSVP policy will only be associated with one type of call; for example, if it is associated with video calls, audio calls will not be impacted
C. an RSVP mandatory mid-call retry counter will be added to calls that encounter mid-call retry errors
D. the default interlocation RSVP service policy will be overridden

Answer: D

4. How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
A. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway.
B. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway.
C. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: B

5. Refer to the exhibit. Horst’s Helicopters has a centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, with SRST implemented on MGCP gateways at the remotes sites. The WAN link to Seattle has failed. All phones in Seattle have registered to the SRST gateway and can call each other internally, but all outside calls fail.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is the most likely solution to the problem?
A. Configure MCGP fallback on the gateway.
B. Add the isdn outgoing-voice command to the configuration.
C. Call the phone provider and report that the PRI link is down.
D. Enable the outgoing POTS dial peer with the no shutdown command.

Answer: A

6. Refer to the exhibit. On a router running Cisco IOS Release 12.3(14)T, an auto-attendant Tcl script is loaded and a warning message is displayed, stating that the operator parameter has not been registered. See the exhibit for an example of the error.
What must you do to continue?

A. nothing, the warning may be ignored
B. register the application with the gatekeeper
C. register the application parameters with the gatekeeper
D. register the application parameters with the application
E. register the application with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. register the application parameters with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Answer: A

7. Which debug command can be used to troubleshoot an issue with a Tcl script?
A. debug tcl script
B. debug call script
C. debug custom script
D. debug voice application

Answer: D

8. Which encryption algorithm does SRTP utilize?
A. SEAL
B. 3DES
C. IPSEC
D. AES

Answer: D

9. What is required to effectively use the Cisco CTL client to activate security in an IP telephony network?
A. H.323 gateway
B. Security Tokens
C. IPSEC
D. Secure SRST

Answer: B

10. When configuring CAPF, user intervention is required when using which authentication mode?
A. by existing certificate (precedence to LSC)
B. by null string
C. by existing certificate (precedence to MIC)
D. by authentication string
E. user intervention never required

Answer: D

11. Manual IOS SRTP configuration is required on which two types of gateways? (Choose two.)
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. PRI
D. SIP
E. SCCP

Answer: AD

12. Which service, when correctly configured in Enterprise Parameters, permits the phone configuration files to be encrypted?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service
B. Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming App Service
C. Cisco CTIManager Service
D. Cisco TFTP Service
E. Cisco CTL Client Service

Answer: D

13. What is the purpose of a region?
A. to specify only the audio codec used within a site
B. to specify only the video codec used between other specific sites
C. to specify the range of codecs used between all other sites
D. to specify the audio and video codecs used between specific sites

Answer: D

14. When you configure a region to use the G.729 codec, which other codecs can be utilized in the region?
A. The region can use all the codecs supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The region will use all of the codecs supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager as long as a software Media Termination Point is available.
C. The region will only use the codec configured in the region configuration field and any other codecs of equal or lower bandwidth.
D. The region will use the configured codec and the default codec as long as it does not exceed the configured bandwidth for the region.

Answer: C

15. Which statement best describes a Media Termination Point?
A. A hardware Media Termination Point can be used to transcode a-law to mu-law and vice versa, but both connections must utilize the same packetization periods.
B. A Media Termination Point is an entity that accepts two full-duplex G.711 streams. It bridges the media streams together and allows them to be set up and torn down independently.
C. A Media Termination Point corrects a mismatch in DTMF transport types when using Delayed Offer for inbound SIP calls.
D. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0, a Media Termination Point is required when two endpoints use a common method for sending DTMF between them such as for all calls using SIP trunks.
E. When using H.323 Fast Start, for inbound and outbound Fast Start, a Media Termination Point is required.

Answer: B

16. Which two statements describe a transcoder? (Choose two.)
A. Transcoders can only connect two streams of the same codec type that use different sampling rates.
B. Transcoders may operate as a Media Termination Point when the codecs are of the same sampling rate but use different codec types.
C. Transcoders may be combined with conferencing resources on a single DSP to conserve resources.
D. Transcoders can convert an input stream of one codec to an output stream that uses a different codec type.
E. Transcoders convert lower bit rate streams to higher bit rate streams.

Answer: BD

17. Refer to the exhibit. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly?

A. The associate profile and dsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command.
B. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command.
C. The sccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command.
D. The maximum sessions command must match the number of codecs configured under the dsp farm profile.
E. The sccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number.

Answer: B

18. Which statement describes locations based CAC?
A. It is a purely logical assignment and does not reflect the actual topology or the actual bandwidth available.
B. The configured bandwidth limit is dependent on the destination location of the call.
C. Each device may have more than one location assigned.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses an arbitrary bandwidth value for each location.
E. Locations based CAC is used to determine the codec used between sites.

Answer: A

19. Which two statements describe RSVP-enabled locations-based CAC? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP can be enabled selectively between pairs of locations.
B. Using RSVP for CAC simply allows admitting or denying calls based on a logical configuration that is ignoring the physical topology.
C. RSVP is topology aware, but only works with full mesh networks.
D. An RSVP agent is a Media Termination Point that the call has to flow through.
E. RSVP and RTP are used between the two endpoints.

Answer: AD

20. Refer to the exhibit. A gatekeeper needs to be configured to provide Call Admission Control. Within the Los Angeles zone the maximum bandwidth for a single session is 128 kb/s and the maximum bandwidth between the Los Angeles zone and any other zone is 256 kb/s. Which two commands need to be added to the configuration to accomplish these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. bandwidth session 128
B. bandwidth session zone la 128
C. bandwidth total default 256
D. bandwidth interzone la 256
E. bandwidth default 128

Answer: BD

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! REVIEW.rtf
642-444 2.77 Order No.txt
642-444 2.77.exe
CCVP CIPT Quick Reference Sheets (Digital Short Cut).pdf
CIPT_642-444_P4S_all_ver.rar
Cisco CallManager Fundamentals, Second Ed..chm
Cisco IP Telephony (CIPT) (Authorized Self-Study Guide), Second Ed..pdf
Cisco IP Telephony Part 1 (CIPT1) v4.1 Student Guide.pdf
Cisco IP Telephony Part 2 (CIPT2) v4.1 Student Guide.pdf
EW 642-444 ePad v2.35 65Q.exe
EW 642-444 ePad v2.77 130Qa.exe
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EW 642-444 v2.77 130Qa.exe
EW 642-444 v2.77 130Qb.exe
histroy.bak
P4S 642-444 v2.16 65Q.rar
P4S 642-444 v2.29 130Q.rar
P4S 642-444 v2.35 65Q.rar
P4S 642-444 v2.35a 65Q.rar
P4S 642-444 v2.35b 65Q.rar
P4S 642-444 v2.73 65Q.rar
P4S 642-444 v2.77 130Q (SS)

NOTE: In order for P4S to work, use winrar to open up the rar files. Open the rar file and in the rar window, double click the folder, and then double click the .exe file! P4S should run fine (do not close the rar window while P4S is running or the program will shut down…)

DO NOT extract the folder in the rar window or P4S may/will not work! If you’re having issues, DO NOT PM me, I don’t know how to fix it!

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